Pathophysiology II Final 2 of 3

Developed by: Becky

While I believe that every answer is correct, there may be errors. If you find one please let me know and I can fix it.

happy studying!

Question 1: Beta amyloid protein is a key constituent of a "feature" found in most Alzheimer's patients:

	Nurofibrillary tangles
	Tau protein
	None of the above
	Neuritic plaques
	Nutritional deficiencies

Question 2: Neurofibrillary tangles are the most often found in particular areas of the CNS such as the:

	Hypothalamus
	Some of the above
	None of the above
	Basal ganglia
	Hippocampus

Question 3: Tau protein is a structural support protein for the intracellular structures known as the:

	Golgi apparatus
	Endoplasmic reticulum (rough)
	Microtubules
	Mitochondria
	None of the above

Question 4: The presence of Alzheimer's dementia is noted in part by decreases in various cognitive abilities such as:

	Memory, particularly short-term
	Recognition of people/places
	Some of the above
	All of the above
	Vocabulary/words

Question 5: Non-vegetative signs of depression include:

	All of the above
	Some of the above
	Hopelessness
	Sadness
	Feelings of guilt

Question 6: Exogenous depression can be caused by/is related to:

	Some of the above
	Mental/emotional/sexual abuse as a child
	All of the above
	The loss of a close family friend/family member/spouse/child
	A major, life-threatening health crisis

Question 7: A bipolar disease "rapid cycler" has cycles that last less than:

	30 days
	180 days
	15 days
	90 days
	1 year

Question 8: Psychosis is though to be at least partially the result of too much dopaminergic activity at/in the:

	None of the above
	Cerebellum
	Hypothalamus
	Cingulate gyrus
	Some of the above

Question 9: Which of the following organs/tissues is/are acted upon by PTH but not by calcitonin in the regulation of Ca++ levels?

	GI tract
	Kidneys
	Bone
	None of the above
	Some of the above

Question 10: In regards to Ca++ regulation, RANK is located in:

	Kidney juxtaglomerular cells
	None of the above
	The anterior pituary cells
	Some of the above
	GI mucosal cells

Question 11: In what organ does PTH work to convert calcifediol to calcitriol?

	Bone
	Kidney
	GI tract
	None of the above
	Liver

Question 12: For a person to be diagnosed with "induction insomnia" they need to be consistently not fall asleep within:

	20 min
	1 hour
	10 min
	30 min
	5 min

Question 13: Historically, the way that we got an insomniac to "sleep" was to increase the activity/influence of:

	Central cholinergic nicotinic receptors
	Central alpha adrenergic receptors
	GABAa receptors
	Serotonergic 5-HT1 receptors
	None of the above

Question 14: During a "normal" nights sleep, when does the majority of the "REM sleep" occur?

	Middle 50%
	Within the first 10 minutes after falling asleep
	Last 25%
	First 25%
	REM is evenly distributed throughout the duration of sleep

Question 15: Older hypnotic drugs do not cause a true sleep, but rather a "sleep-like" state (hypnotic). in this state one stage of the normal sleep pattern is lengthened at the expense of all the others. This stage is:

	REM
	Two
	Zero
	Four
	None of the above

Question 16: BDZ receptors are located upon certain varieties of the receptor for:

	Norepinephrine
	GABA
	Dopamine
	Serotonin
	Acetylcholine

Question 17: "Powder burn" spots are associated with:

	Secondary dysmenorrhea
	PCOS
	Endometriosis
	None of the above
	Amenorrhea

Question 18: What features of a female's breast are stimulated to grow/develop by progesterone?

	The ductal system
	Blood vessels and other supportive structures
	Nipple and areolar area
	Mammary alveolar tissue/secretory structures
	None of the above

Question 19: In which area of the hypothalamus is estrogen a negative feedback inhibitor of LHRH?

	Supraoptic nucleus
	Some of the above
	Arcuate nucleus
	Paraventricular nucleus
	None of the above

Question 20: A dysfunction of estrogen activity in either of the nuclei mentioned in the previous question could lead to:

	None of the above
	Endometriosis
	Some of the above
	Infertility
	Increased vaginal secretions

Question 21: What is the major source of estrogen in a non-pregnant female?

	None of the above
	The adrenal glands
	The anterior pituitary
	The developing, "Graafian" follicle
	The placenta

Question 22: Following ovulation female progesterone levels rise because of increased synthesis/secretion by the:

	Stratum granulosum tissue in the corpus luteum
	Adrenal reticularis
	Glandular cells of the breast
	None of the above
	The chorion layer of the endometrium

Question 23: Among progesterone's actions is/are:

	Some of the above
	A thermogenic action
	Stimulation of glandular development in the breast
	All of the above
	Endometrial glandular development

Question 24: Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

	Increased body temperature of about 1*F
	Abdominal pain, cramping particularly during periods
	Some of the above
	All of the above
	"heavy" uterine bleeding during periods

Question 25: Insulin resistance leading to hyperglycemia is a sign/symptom of:

	Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
	Primary dysmenorrhea
	Polycystic ovarian disease
	Endometriosis
	None of the above

Question 26: A female who is developing PCOS may experience:

	Heavier than normal menstrual flow
	Weight gain
	Hair growth/hirsutism
	All of the above
	Some of the above

Question 27: Excessive amounts of uterine prostaglandin F is the cause of:

	Leiomyomas (fibroids)
	Endometriosis
	PCOS
	Some of the above
	None of the above

Question 28: One cause of PID is infection. Among the infectious agents with a strong association to this condition we include:

	Syphilis
	HPV
	None of the above
	Some of the above
	Chlamydia

Question 29: Inhibition of PDE5 is a possible therapy for:

	Primary dysmenorrhea
	Varicocele
	None of the above
	Erectile dysfunction
	BPH

Question 30: A lack of fetal androgen causes which embryonic ductal system to deteriorate?

	Wolffian
	None of the above
	Some of the above
	Fallopian
	Mullerian

Question 31: When we speak of an androgen's "anabolic actions" we include:

	All of the above
	Skeletal muscle growth and development
	Prostatic development
	Some of the above
	Increased erythropoiesis

Question 32: The most common cause of juvenile testicular failure is:

	Varicocele
	Kallman's syndrome
	None of the above
	Orchitis
	Cryptorchidism

Question 33: Which bacterium/virus is most commonly associated with orchitis?

	Rubella
	E. coli
	Streptococcus
	None of the above
	Mumps

Question 34: Target tissues (in males) with dihydrotestosterone specific receptors include:

	Skeletal muscle
	All of the above
	Larynx
	Prostate
	Some of the above

Question 35: "Chocolate cysts" result from endometrial tissue growing in/on the:

	Ovary
	Uterine muscle
	Cervix/vagina
	None of the above
	Perotoneal wall

Question 36: Neurogenic bladder can be caused by neuropathies like diabetes mellitus, but more often it is due to:

	Kidney stones
	None of the above
	Stress
	Acute infection
	CNS lesions

Question 37: An Ag/Ab relation in the kidney is commonly associated with the cause of:

	Pyelonephritis
	None of the above
	Cystitis
	Glomerulonephritis
	Kidney stones

Question 38: Women are more prone to cystitis because:

	The lack prostate antibiotic factor
	Estrogen tends to stimulate bacterial flora in/around the lower pelvic region
	All of the above
	Some of the above
	Of their anatomy; ie. a shorter urethra

Question 39: Which secretion(s) of the adrenal gland is/are "pituitary independent"?

	Cortisol
	Aldosterone
	Epinephrine
	Some of the above
	None of the above

Question 40: The zona reticularis secretes:

	Cortisol
	Any of the above
	None of the above
	Aldosterone
	Testosterone

Question 41: What adrenal pathology can be caused by an oat cell carcinoma?

	Addison's disease
	CAH
	Conn's syndrome
	Cushing's disease
	Grave's disease

Question 42: Luckily, the form of CAH that is the most fatal is also the least prevalent. This form results from a loack of:

	21-beta hydroxylase
	3-beta-hydroxylase
	All of the above are equal in prevalence
	11-beta-hydroxylase
	None of the above is fatal

Question 43: An increase in glucocorticoids whether endogenous or exogenous) will cause an increase in:

	Some of the above
	Amount/volume of acid secretion
	PH
	Amount/volume of pepsin secretion
	All of the above

Question 44: Which of the following inflammation/repair parameters decreases in a patient with Cushing's Disease?

	Some of the above
	Number of fibroblasts
	All of the above
	White cell phagocytic activity
	Granulocyte diapedesis activity

Question 45: The two major symptoms that indicate that a patient has Conn's syndrome are:

	Hypokalemia/hypotension
	Hyperkalemia/hypotension
	Hyperkalemia/hypertension
	None of the above
	Hypokalemia/hypertension

Question 46: "Buffalo hump" is a condition associate with which disease/condition?

	Some of the above
	Cushing's syndrome
	None of the above
	Addison's disease
	CAH

Question 47: Increased "freckling" and darkening of the skin can be a sign/symptom of:

	Conn's syndrome
	Cushing's disease
	CAH w/ hypertension
	Addison's disease
	None of the above

Question 48: The testosterone responsible for sperm maturation is mostly secreted by:

	all of the above
	Leydig cells
	Interstitial cells
	Sustentacular cells
	Some of the above

Question 49: In the male LH is called/named:

	MSH
	None of the above
	FSH
	ICSH
	LHRH

Question 50: The physiologic process by which oxygen goes from the alveoli to the blood stream is known as:

	Ventilation
	Perfusion
	Respiration
	None of the above
	Diffusion

Question 51: In addition to its role in the exchange of blood gases into an out of the air, the respiratory system is an important factor in/for:

	Maintenance of acid-base equilibrium
	Cardiovascular hemodynamics
	Some of the above
	Systemic inflammation/repair
	All of the above

Question 52: Among the causes of respiratory failure, one can include:

	An impairment of ventilation
	An impairment of diffusion
	Some of the above
	All of the above
	An impairment of the ventilation/perfusion ratio

Question 53: The best hypothesis as to the reason/cause of an acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in an adult is:

	None of the above
	Injury to the pulmonary microcirculation
	An immunologic reaction
	A sudden drop in blood pressur/blood flow in the pulmonary circulation
	Depression in the brain stem

Question 54: Whatever the cause, the major problem in ARDS is:

	Atelectasis
	None of the above
	Thromboemboli in the pulmonary circulation
	The increase in oxygen concentration in the alveoli
	A decrease in elasticity/compliance

Question 55: SIDS is thought to result because of the loss of the major infant drive to respiration which is the:

	Neurogenic drive
	Hypercapnic drive
	Hypoxic drive
	Voluntary drive
	None of the above

Question 56: What is cor pulmonale?

	Pulmonary hypotension
	None of the above
	Mitral valve collapse
	Chest pneumothorax (hole in the thoracic cavity)
	Right sided heart failure

Question 57: The three characteristics of asthma include:

	Mucosal edema
	Bronchiolar hyper-reactivity
	All of the above
	Increased mucous production
	Some of the above

Question 58: For a proper diagnosis of extrinsic asthma, the cause should be a/an:

	Emotional stress
	Chemical/drug
	Antigen (allergy)
	None of the above
	Pollutant

Question 59: Receiving a "salty kiss" indicates that the other individual may suffer from:

	None of the above
	Extrinsic asthma
	Exercise-induced asthma
	Sarcoidosis
	Cystic fibrosis

Question 60: Silica dust (or chain silicates) is the causative agent for:

	Some of the above
	"Black lung" disease in coal miners
	Asbestosis
	All of the above
	Silicosis

partner:

SheKnows

quizzes und tests quizzen en tests